Conectado Rony Guadalajara

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« : junio 07, 2019, 01:28:23 pm »
Q:  I think I understand you. And what about the Word became flesh, how do you interpret it?

A: Once John has spoken to us about God and his Word in verses 1 and 2, this Word is not mentioned again until verse 14.

If we pay attention and continue studying the verses that follow, we will realize that from verse 3 to 13 they are referring to God, that is, to the Father, and not to the Word as many people mistakenly believe.


Because the last precedent with which the verse of John 1: 2 ends is "the God"

John 1: 2

The same was in the beginning with “the God”

Therefore, all the verses that follow have as precedent "the God", and they are referring to the Father.

Let's see it:

God is the Creator (Revelation 4:11)

In God was life (1 John 1:2)

God is light (1 John 1: 5)

That was the true Light, which lighteth every man that cometh into the world. God is that true light that came to this world through his servant the Messiah (Isaias 42:6).

God has always been in the world helping people; it is the world he has made (Acts 4:24), and all those who believe in his name, all those who love his character, his way of thinking and being, who live according to his Word, all those who they do his will, God has given them the power to be his children.

And now we come to verse 14:

It is in this verse when Jesus Christ enters the scene.

Some translations start the verse saying: "And that Word ..."


So that we realize that the previous verses are not talking about the Word, but about the Father, returning to the Word of verse 1. However, in the originals he does not put that, but the verse begins with "And the Word ..."

John 1:14

"And the Word inhabited flesh."

In what flesh?

In the human being Jesus Christ born of Mary by the power of God in the Holy Spirit.

And why should it be translated in this way and not as it is vulgarly done?

Let's see it:

In the original of this verse in Greek, appears on the one hand the word "egeneto", which has many meanings, and on the other hand the word "sarx" which means flesh. According to scholars, this verse 14 is one of the most difficult to interpret of the entire Bible.

και ο λογος σαρξ εγενετο
And the Logos sarx egeneto

The question is: What did John mean in this principle of verse 14? What meaning did the word "egeneto" give? I have said previously that this word "egeneto" has many meanings, so taking into account the context in which this word appears, united in parallel with other verses of the New Testament, it will help us to choose the best translation.

Traditionally, this verse 14, in order to be in harmony with the Trinitarian formulation and to give more emphasis to a supposed incarnation that is not such, has been translated as "the Word became flesh"; but this is not what the text says, because if we translate it in this way we would find the following inconsistencies:


If the Word becomes flesh, God is left without his Word, that is, we leave God without his Word, since it would have become flesh.

This can not be because God keeps his Word.


How is it possible that something like the Word, which is neither a person nor has a personality, can become flesh?.

This is also absurd.

However, if the beginning of the verse we translate it as "the Word inhabited flesh", since the word "egeneto" can also mean to inhabit, it would be the correct translation, or at least the one that would come closest to what John wanted to say.

Q: That is to say, that Word, which is not a person nor has personality, does not become flesh, but is lodged in the flesh. True?

A: Yes. That would be another way of understanding the verse.


And how do you point it out?

With his Word

And how?

We do not know. The truth is that although God incorporates his Word in Jesus Christ at the moment of his birth (John 1:14), God does not stop having the fullness of his Word. And it is God who handles this Word in a permanent relationship with Jesus.

This would be consistent with passages like Colossians 1:19 where we read that the Father was pleased that in Christ all the fullness lived bodily. It is for this reason that presenting Jesus Christ as a divine nature would not be wrong, although that fullness does not interfere in anything in his person, in his human condition. The translation "the Word inhabited flesh" would also be in consonance with Philippians 2: 6, where we read that Jesus Christ, existing in union with "morphe" of God, did not want to be equal to God.

Notice that,

John 1:14,
Colossians 1:19
Philippians 2: 6

They are related, they treat the same subject with different words.

In John 1:14, the Word inhabited flesh.

In Colossians 1:19, For it pleased the Father that in him should all fulness dwell.

And in Philippians 2: 6 we read that Jesus Christ exists in union with God's morphe.

Therefore, the "verb", "the fullness" and the "morphe" of God, is the same.

I take this opportunity to explain the above-mentioned verse of Philippians 2: 6, since many brothers present it to prove, erroneously, that Jesus Christ is God. The verse does not say that Jesus Christ, being God or equal to God, did not want to remain in the condition of God. That does not say the text. What the text tells us is that Jesus Christ, being only a man, did not pretend to be equal to God. Adam dared to be equal to God, Jesus did not. Therefore, the humiliation of Jesus was not reduced from God to man, that does not say the text, but from man to slave. This was the real humiliation.

Q: But Jesus Christ is the Lord, is not it?

A: Jesus Christ is the Lord because God, who is the Sovereign Lord, has made him Lord and Christ (Acts 2:36), Jesus Christ is the light because God, who is light (1 John 1:5), has placed him by light of the nations (Isaiah 42:6), Jesus Christ forgave the sins because God gave him all authority (Matthew 28:18) and Jesus Christ has life in himself because as God, our Father, has life in himself, he has also given to his Son, life in himself (John 5:26).

And how has that life given him?

As I have explained above, through the Word, of the Word that God incorporates in Jesus Christ at the moment of his birth (John 1:14). That Word, which was with the Father, the Word of God, is eternal life (1 John 1: 2). And we, too, can have eternal life if we accept that Word.

God has given practically everything to Jesus Christ; his spirit, his power, wisdom and knowledge. And I say practically everything because there are things that even the Son does not know (Mark 13:32).

Jesus Christ is not another prophet; Jesus Christ is the Messiah, is the Savior given by God. Jesus Christ makes known, reveals and represents the Father, who with his power, that of the Father, carries out the work for our salvation.

Jesus Christ, as I said above, makes known, reveals and represents the Father. That is why when Jesus speaks to us he is bearing witness that the divine presence, glory, power and Word of God is in him. This Word is eternal life (1 John: 1: 2), and if we accept it, if we incorporate it into our hearts, that eternal life we can experience here and now.

Q: But then, do we have two Saviors?

A: Effectively, that's right. Revelation 7:10 tells us that both are our Saviors. One, God, the divine part, is the originator of the plan of salvation, the one who takes the initiative, the other, the human part, is the man Jesus Christ, who accepts the plan and carries it out with the power of God. That is why, once Jesus Christ finished his work of redemption by suffering and dying for our sins, God, the Father, the only God, crowns him with glory and honor, exalting him to the utmost above all and above all, including angels, and causing every knee to bow before him (Philippians 2:10).

This is something extraordinary, a man, a human being exalted by God in this way for all the work he has done for us, so that we may be saved. Wonderful!.

Q: And how will all Mr. Guadalajara end?

A: As we read in 1 Corinthians 15:28, text that every Adventist knows. And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all.

Q: But then, Mr. Guadalajara, if Jesus Christ is a human being, why is he worshiped as we read in different passages of the Bible?

A: Let's clarify this matter because we have to be very careful not to fall into idolatry.

We criticize other denominations because they worship Mary and the "saints", and we are not aware that we are doing exactly the same, even worse, since we are worshiping Jesus Christ, who is a human being.

We only have to worship the Father, the Creator, the one God, no one else (John 17: 3, 1 Corinthians 8: 6, Revelation 4:11).

Jesus himself makes clear in Matthew 4:10, that the only one that must be adored is God, the Father.

In John 4: 23-24 we read:

“But the hour cometh, and now is, when the true worshippers shall worship the Father in spirit and in truth: for the Father seeketh such to worship him. God is spirit: and they that worship him must worship him in spirit and in truth.

So, as I said before, we should be very careful not to fall into idolatry, and likewise, we should review certain hymns of our Church that we address to Jesus Christ, when they would only correspond to the Father.

There is no text in the Bible where Jesus Christ is worshiped.

There are many verses where the term "proskineo" appears which is erroneously translated as "adoration".

For example, in Matthew 2:11, Hebrews 1: 6 or Matthew 28: 9, all referring to Jesus, the term "proskineo" appears, translating into most versions by worship. This is not correct.The meaning of proskineo is prostration, reverence, recognition. We can prostrate ourselves before a king, like King David, before a man for the work he has done for the benefit of humanity, before a medical eminence, etc.

This proskineo is magnified and given greater solemnity when we do it to Jesus, but not for this we are worshiping Him. Remember that Jesus is a man, a human being.

When this proskineo is done to the Father, that is, to God, then it is considered worship.

However, in certain places of the Bible, a word appears that by itself means cult of adoration; this word is "Latria."

This "Latria" is found in several verses, as for example in Matthew 4:10, or in Revelation 7:15.

All the verses where the word latria appears always refer to God, that is, to the Father, never to Jesus Christ and, of course, to no man.

Unfortunately, many versions translate this latria, as in the aforementioned cases of Matthew 4:10, or in Revelation 7:15, by "serving." How can you translate in this way? Regrettable.

Q: Very good, Mr. Guadalajara. To finish, I would like to ask you one last question: If you affirm that the only God is the Father and that Jesus Christ is the man whom God has chosen for our salvation, who is the Holy Spirit?

A: Sister White, referring to this subject, said that silence is gold. Regardless of what or who the Holy Spirit is, what we have to be clear is that there is only one God, and that this term "God", in both the Old and New Testaments, applies exclusively to the Father.

Having this in mind, that outside the Father there is no other God, I will try to explain from my point of view and in a very summarized way, what or who the Holy Spirit is.

At first we could talk about the "Spirit of God", as an attribute, as morph, as an aspect of God.

Like his verb, his divine presence, his face, his glory, his hands, his breath, his shekinah, his power..... this spirit has no personality but has the power of God.

Examples of this spirit of God can be found in:

Genesis 1: 2

And the earth  was without form, and void; and darkness was upon the face of the deep. And the spirit of God moved upon the face of the waters.

Matthew 3:16

And Jesus, when he was baptized, went up straightway out of the water: and, lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the spirit of God descending like a dove, and lighting upon him.

In a second place we could speak of the Holy Spirit referring to God himself, that is, to the Father, since God is Spirit and is Holy.

Examples of this Holy Spirit can be found in:

Acts 5: 3,4

But Peter said, Ananias, why hath Satan filled thine heart to lie to the Holy Spirit, and to keep back part of the price of the land?.

Whiles it remained, was it not thine own? and after it was sold, was it not in thine own power? why hast thou conceived this thing in thine heart? thou hast not lied unto men, but unto God.

Matthew 12:32

And whosoever speaketh a word against the Son of man, it shall be forgiven him: but whosoever speaketh against the Holy Spirit, it shall not be forgiven him, neither in this world, neither in the world to come.

In a third place we would have a spirit like the one that emerges when we follow or imitate someone. A spirit that although the person is no longer physically among us, his legacy remains. For example: Having the spirit of Christ, would be to follow his example of humility, meekness, justice, forgiveness, obedience to the Father, etc ...

And finally we would have the Holy Spirit as the seven spirits of God. In the latter case it would be the spirit of God as morph or aspect of God but working on an angel. The spirit and power of God would be in an angel or in angels sent all over the earth (Revelation 5: 6).

While he was in the world, Jesus healed with the spirit and power of God (Acts 10:38), that is, Jesus did not perform miracles with his own power but with the spirit and power of the Father, therefore, when ascending , Jesus sent us the Comforter. This Comforter, this Spirit of truth, comes from the Father and is the one who bears witness to Jesus (John 15:26, John 15:26, John 16: 7).

Do not confuse the different types of spirits, such as saying that the Spirit of God of the Old Testament is the same Holy Spirit that Jesus promised the apostles when I ascended to heaven, since this Holy Spirit was in the future and not yet had been sent.

-   Spirit of God as attribute, morphe or aspect of God, without personality but
    with the power of  God. (Example: Genesis 1: 1,2)

-   Holy Spirit being the Father himself, since God is spirit and is holy.
    (ExamplActs 5: 1- 4).
    In this case the personality comes from the Father.

-   Spirit in a figurative sense. For example, to have the spirit of Jesus Christ,
    that is, to have the same thought that Jesus had regarding humility,
    forgiveness,  justice, obedience to God, etc ...

-   The Holy Spirit as the seven spirits of God, where the spirit and power of
    God would be working on an angel or angels sent all over the earth.
    (Example:  Revelation 5: 6).
    In this case the personality comes from an angel and it is this Holy Spirit that
    Jesus promises to send us when he ascends to heaven.

It is interesting to note that the Holy Spirit as the seven spirits of God no longer appears in chapter 21 or 22 of Revelation. Is it because in the New Earth there will be no need to convince anyone of sin because it will no longer exist and then that Spirit, who is not God, but who is of God, returns to the Father?

It is an opinion.

Q: Interesting reflection.

Let's read the Bible and discover our loving, unique and great God, the Father, made known, revealed and represented by his Son, the man Jesus Christ.

God bless you.

Foro Adventista

« : junio 07, 2019, 01:28:23 pm »