Conectado Rony Guadalajara

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« : junio 07, 2019, 01:32:08 pm »
First of all, I would like to ask for excuses because the translation from Spanish to English has been done with the google translator. Although I suppose there will be many grammatical errors, I trust that you understand what I want to convey.


By  R. Guadalajara

Without the intention of being pedantic and with the sole purpose of being able to express better what I think, I have taken the liberty of interviewing myself.

I would like, if someone does not agree with the interpretation I make of certain verses of the Bible, expose it. I believe that all opinions are important to keep growing in the knowledge of God and his Word.

Question: Mr. Guadalajara, are you an Adventist?

Answer: Yes, for almost twenty years, although I prefer to identify myself as a Christian, without more.

Q: Mr. Guadalajara. Is there only one God?

A: Yes. We read it in Deuteronomy 6:4 and also in Mark 12:29, where Jesus says that the first and greatest commandment is: “Hear Israel, the Lord our God, the Lord one is”.

Q: And who is that God for you, Mr. Guadalajara?

A: It is the Lord Almighty God, who was, who is and who is to come (Revelation 4:8), the Alpha and the Omega, beginning and end (Revelation 1:8), he who lives for ever and ever (Revelation 4:9,10), the only Sovereign King of kings and Lord of lords, the only one who has immortality, who dwells in unapproachable light, whom none of the men has seen or can not see (1 Timoteo 6:15,16), the Creator (Revelation 4:11), our father (Ephesians 1: 2), our Lord (Acts 4:26), our Savior (1 Timothy 1: 1)

Q: But a God in three people, is not it?

A: No. That concept is alien to the Word of God. It is an idea that emerged in the fourth century in opposition to Arianism, which later became dogma supported by a supposedly infallible power and that unfortunately our church ended up adopting. In both the Old and New Testaments we are revealed as a unique and only God, the Father, not a unit composed of three "persons".

Verses like John 17: 3, or 1 Corinthians 8: 6, leave no doubt that the Father is the only God.

Q: But then, what you are saying is against our doctrine, do not you think?

A: Adventists have been recovering truths like the Sanctuary, the non-immortality of the soul, the state of the dead, the Sabbath ..., but in some issues we have to go back to the sources, to rebuild walls. One of them is concerning the deity. As Mrs. White says in the book The Other Power, "no matter how long we have held certain doctrines, it does not mean that they are infallible".

Sister White herself is admitting that it can be wrong, that we can be wrong, so we have to be very careful not to make it another infallible system like the one we criticize in other denominations. Only God is infallible.

Therefore, if what this or that person says about a doctrinal issue, has the gift of wisdom, the gift of a pastor, the gift of interpretation, the gift of prophecy or any other gift, if it can not be endorsed by the sole writing (Bible), we will have to reject it.

Adventists, starting from a mistaken Arian position like the one our pioneers held, have evolved towards a concept of deity so distorted that the vast majority of the brothers, although they accept it, do not understand it, and those who disagree do not say it or do not They dare to expose it publicly.

Mrs. White also said that Adventists should always be open to a new light based on a better understanding and interpretation of the texts of the Bible. In this sense, I get the impression that within our church is beginning to emerge a reform movement that presents as an alternative a concept of deity strongly supported in the Bible.

Q: Does this mean that you and other brothers are going to leave the church?

A: No, it is not necessary to leave the church, but to reform certain doctrines with the help of God.

Q: So, Mr. Guadalajara, if the only God is the Father, who is Jesus Christ for you?.

A: Jesus Christ is not God (John 17: 3, 1 Corinthians 8: 6). Jesus Christ is a man (1 Corinthians 15:21). It is the heavenly man (1 Corinthians 15:47) that when the fulfillment of time came, he was sent by God, born of a woman and born under the law (Galatians 4: 4).

Q: And how do you interpret that Jesus Christ is the heavenly man?

A: The first man, Adam, is earthly, but the second man, Jesus Christ, is from heaven, since he was preconceived, pre-known and pre-existent in the eternal mind of God in the heavenly places before the foundation of the world (1 Peter 1:19 , 20 ; Ephesians 1:1-3), in order to gather all things in him (Ephesians 1: 8-10).

Jesus Christ is the stone rejected by men but chosen and precious for God (1 Peter 2: 4).

Jesus Christ is the man in whom God has willed that all the fullness be bodily lived (Colossians 1:19; Colossians 2: 9).

And it is from that fullness, from that grace and truth, that we all take (John 1: 16,17).

In his prescience, God, the Father, sees the Creation, the Rebellion, the Fall and the Salvation. It is in that same prescience that God sees the future man Jesus Christ as the only one capable of carrying out his plan of salvation and the only one who fulfills the model required by him to carry it out. (Ephesians 1: 1-3, 5-8, 3:11, 2 Timothy 1: 8-11, 2 Corinthians 5: 18,19, 1 Peter 1:19, 20).

Q: And why does God choose a man as our Savior?

A: Because the chosen one did not have to succor the angels, but he had to succor the descendants of Abraham, to humanity, for that reason he had to be similar to his brothers in everything (Hebrews 2: 14-17).

The only one who has immortality, who dwells in unapproachable light, which none of the men has seen or can not see (1 Timothy 6:16), the Almighty (Revelation 1: 8), wants to save us; and he does it through Jesus Christ, from a man, because that is what Jesus Christ is, a man (1 Corinthians 15:21); a man to whom God gives his power and all authority to carry out the work of the plan of salvation (Matthew 28:18).

Therefore, we have not been saved by a God who became a man, but by a human being who accepted the plan of God, who submitted to the divine will, who humbled himself from man to servant, and being in this condition of a servant he accepted death, an ignominious death, the death of the cross.

This is Great! Extraordinary! There are no words!

And it is in Jesus Christ where all things were created, those in the heavens and those on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones, domains, principalities, powers, everything was created in him, by him and for him. (Colossians 1:16).

The translation "through him," which some versions make of this verse, that is, "through Jesus Christ," is not correct.


The reason is this:

The specialist in exegesis of the Greek of the New Testament of the University of Genève, Norbert Hugedé, in his book "L 'Épitre aux Colossiens", p. 60, comments that the expression "by him", ("δι" (di) + genitive), of Colossians 1:16, is to be understood as "in function of him",  "taking into account to him ", and not by (δι" (di) + accusative), " through him ".

That is to say, everything that the Father has created, he has done in Jesus Christ, by Jesus Christ, taking into account Jesus Christ and for Jesus Christ, but not through Jesus Christ.

Jesus Christ, although at the moment of creation has not yet come into existence, God, the Father, the only God, the only Creator, already foreknows and pre-exists in his eternal mind (1 Peter 1: 19,20), ( Ephesians 3:11); (2 Timothy 1: 8,9); (Ephesians 1: 8-10)

God, the Father, is the only Creator:

Revelation 4:11:

"Lord, you are worthy to receive glory and honor and power; because you created all things, and by your will they exist and were created. "

Everything that God has done, he has done in function, for cause and taking into account Jesus Christ, or in other words, if God in his prescience, had not foreknown him as the only one who in the future would accept his plan of salvation and the only one who was going to be able to carry it out, God had not created anything and therefore, neither you nor I would be here now.

Since before Creation, although Jesus Christ has not yet come into existence, for God, however, he is before all things (John 8:58, Colossians 1:17), wanting him to have the preeminence in everything and that all things subsist in him (Colossians 1: 17-18).

Q: Are you saying that Jesus Christ did not exist before his birth?

A: Yes. Before being born of Mary by the power of God in the Holy Spirit, Jesus Christ did not exist; The Son of God is eternal because it existed in the eternal mind of the Father. It is not that there was a God Son, or an essential eternal Son of God, that does not put it anywhere and is something totally foreign to the Bible, but that the holy being that is born of Mary, God declares her Son, something very different. The Son of God, the Son of Man, the Only Begotten, the Only One, everything refers to man, to the human being, Jesus Christ.

In his eternal mind, before anything had been created, and before Jesus Christ came into existence, God already foreknows and pre-exists it (Ephesians 1: 1-3, Ephesians 3:11;  2 Timothy 1: 8,9;  1 Peter 1:19:20).

It is in this pre-existence that God rejoices in him because he sees that he is the only one who will accept the plan of salvation and the only one who will be able to carry it out. It is then when a glory is produced, and it is that glory that later Jesus Christ claims him once he comes into existence.

John 17: 5

"Now, Father, glorify me next to you, with that glory I had with you before the world was".

Q: But if Jesus Christ, or the Son of God, did not exist before being born of Mary, how does he explain then that in the beginning the Word existed with God?

A: You, in your question, are affirming that the Word has personality or is a person.

Q: And is not it?

A: No. The Word is not a person nor has personality, is the Word of God. The Word is not God, the Word is God's, as is his divine presence, his face, his spirit, his glory, his hands, his breath, his shekinah, his power. It could be said that all these terms are "morfes", "aspects" of God, but not God. The Word is eternal because God is eternal. The Word is a quality, a particularity, a singularity, a nature, a brand, an attribute of God. In the Old Testament, in Hebrew, it is the dabar of God, and in the New Testament, in Greek, it is translated as the rhema or the logos of God. In no case, to this dabar, rhema or logos, the texts give it a personality character.

Paul, in Hebrews 4:12, tells us that the Logos, that is, the Word of God, is alive and effective, and sharper than any two-edged sword; and penetrates to split the soul and the spirit, the joints and the marrow, and discerns the thoughts and intentions of the heart.

And in Isaiah 55:11, we read that the dabar, that is, the Word that comes from the mouth of God, will not return to him empty, but will do whatever he wants.

Q: That is, for you, the Word is not the Son of God.

A: THE WORD IS NOT THE SON OF GOD. Can you present me with a text where I say it? There is not a single text in the Bible that says that the Word is Jesus Christ or the Son of God.

As I said before, the Word is neither a person nor has personality. The Word is an attribute of God. That the Word is the Son of God is an erroneous conclusion to which we have come influenced by that trinitarian idea that emerged in the fourth century that besides being not biblical, as I have said before, is irrational and absurd. Do you believe that everything we have read before of Paul and Isaiah regarding the Word, the dabar or the logos of God can be applied to Jesus Christ?

Q: So Mr. Guadalajara, how do you interpret John 1:1?

A: John 1: 1, tells us that in the beginning was God and his Word, and that this Word was divinity. Nothing else.

εν  (In)  αρχη  (beginning) ην (was) ο (the) λογος (Logos/Word) και (and) ο (the) λογος (Logos/Word) ην (was) προς (with) τον  (the)  θεον (God) και (and) θεος (God) ην (was) ο (the)  λογος (Logos/Word)

"In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with the God and divinity was the Word"

Why should it be translated in this way?

Renowned grammarians such as James Moffatt, Hugh J. Schonfield, Philip B. Harner, Edgar Goodspeed, Murray J. Harris, Daniel B. Wallace, HE Dana, Julius R. Mantey and others, agree that this verse translates in this way because the first God that appears in the text of John 1 carries article; the Word was with "the God", and the second God that appears in the text does not carry article; "And God was the Word"; therefore, if the second God does not carry article, and the nominal predicate precedes the verbal form  ; "And God was the Word", the Greek grammar does not translate it either as the Word was God or as the Word was a God, but as a quality, a nature of the Word, that is, that the Word was divinity or divine.

Philip B. Harner, one of the grammarians mentioned above, says that the grammatical construction of John 1: 1 includes a predicate without the definite article "the" preceding the verb, a construction that has mainly a qualitative meaning and shows that "the Logos possesses the nature of theós ". Further on he says: I believe that "in John 1: 1 the qualitative strength of the predicate is so important that the name [theos] can not be considered definite." (Journal of Biblical Literature, 1973, pp. 85, 87.)

All these translators recognize that the Greek term is qualitative and refers to the nature of the Word, so they translate the phrase: "the Word was divine".

The verse in question is referring solely and exclusively to God and to his Word, that is, to a single "person", and not to two "persons".

I give you an example, that although it is not exactly the same, it is worth to understand what I mean:

You and your word are not two people, but only one. I explain?. Your word is yours, it is part of you, but nobody says that you and your word are two people. Why then do we tell John what he does not say, that God and the Word are two persons?

What you should never do is go to a text with some preconceived ideas in advance and interpret the text adjusting it to those ideas. This is what has happened for hundreds of years with this famous verse of John.

When we read a text we have to stick to what the text says, without any type of interference or preconceived ideas influence the understanding or interpretation of it.

As I said before, Juan is giving the Word a character of nature, not identity. Just as the word of a human being is human, the Word is divine because it is an attribute of God, and it is eternal because God is eternal.

John is not inventing anything or going beyond what the texts say (1 Corinthians 4: 6), why John was going to invent that Jesus Christ is the Word ?.

John, as it could not be otherwise, is referring to the theology of the Old Testament, the only scriptures that existed at that time and where none of the texts is given to the Word, the Logos, or the Dabar of God, character of person or personality. Neither in the New Testament do we find verses where the Word is given personality character.

John, when he writes his book, has no idea of that trinitarian doctrine alien to the bible that would emerge in the fourth century and that later would become dogma supported by a supposedly infallible power.

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